50+ Profits and Gains from Business and Profession (PGBP) MCQs, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

50+ Profits and Gains from Business and Profession (PGBP) MCQs
Income Tax MCQs 2022 – 23

In this page you get 50+ Profits and Gains from Business and Profession (PGBP) MCQs which are asked in various exams of Mumbai University, Dibrugarh University, Gauhati University, Kolkata University and Assam University.

Also, these questions are useful for B. Com exams of various universities covered under CBCS pattern.

Also, these income tax objective type questions and answers are also useful for NTA Net Commerce Exam, CMA, CA, CS and other competitive exams.

Introduction to Business and Profession

Business: “Business” simply means any economic activity carried on for earning profits. Sec. 2(3) has defined the term as “ any trade, commerce, manufacturing activity or any adventure or concern in the nature of trade, commerce and manufacture”. 

Profession: Section 2(36) defines “Profession’’ to include vocation. Therefore, even if a person carries on any activity, not on the basis of ability and knowledge acquired out of a carries on any activity, not on the basis of ability and knowledge acquired out of a professed study, degree or diploma but on account in inborn talent, skill and attributes, any income derived there from shall also be considered as professional income. 

Example, income earned by rendering services by C.A., Lawyer, Doctor, Engineer, Architect, photographer etc. So profession refers to those activities where the livelihood is earned by the persons through their intellectual or manual skill.

1. Salary received by a partner from the firm in which he is a partner is taxable under the head:

a) Income from salary.

b) Capital gains.

c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

d) Income from other sources.

Ans: c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

2. Perquisites received by the assessee during the course of carrying on his business or profession is taxable under the head:

a) Income from salary.

b) Capital gains.

c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

d) Income from other sources.

Ans: c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

3. Any some received under key man insurance policy taken on the life of the employee shall be:

a) Income from salary.

b) Capital gains.

c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

d) Income from other sources.

Ans: c) Profits and gains of business or profession.

4. Methods of accounting is irrelevant for which head of income?

a) Income from salary.

b) Income from house property

b) Capital gains.

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

5. Under the head business and profession, the method of accounting which an assessee can follow shall be:

a) Mercantile System

b) Cash System

c) Mercantile or cash system only

d) Hybrid system

Ans: c) Mercantile or cash system only

6. Depreciation is allowed in case of:

a) Tangible assets

b) Intangible assets

c) Tangible and intangible assets

d) Deferred revenue expenditure

Ans: c) Tangible and intangible assets

7. Under Income Tax Act depreciation is allowed on:

a) Cost price.

b) Market price.

c) W D V.

d) Face value.

Ans: c) W D V.

8. For which company depreciation is allowed on SLM basis under Income Tax Act?

a) Banking Companies

b) Insurance Companies

c) Electricity undertakings

d) None of the above

Ans: c) Electricity undertakings

9. Rate of depreciation on residential building is:

a) 5%.

b) 10%.

c) 15%.

d) 20%.

Ans: a) 5%.

10. Rate of depreciation on non-residential building is:

a) 10%.

b) 15%.

c) 20%.

d) 25%.

Ans: a) 10%.

11. Rate of depreciation on furniture is:

a) 10%.

b) 15%.

c) 20%.

d) 25%.

Ans: a) 10%.

12. New plant and machinery acquired and put to use by an assessee engaged in transmission of power is eligible for additional depreciation at ____ of actual cost.

a) 10%

b) 12.5%

c) 15%

d) 20%

Ans: d) 20%

13. Additional depreciation is allowed at half the rate, if the asset is used in the initial year for:

a) 195 days.

b) 199 days.

c) 360 days.

d) Less than 180 days.

Ans: d) Less than 180 days.

14. The rate of depreciation on intangible asset is:

a) 5%.

b) 15%.

c) 20%.

d) 25%.

Ans: d) 25%.

15. Preliminary expenses shall be allowed as deduction in:

a) 5 Instalments.

b) 10 Instalments.

c) 15 Instalments.

d) 12 Instalments.

Ans: a) 5 Instalments.

16. Technical know-how acquired after 1.4.98 is eligible for depreciation at:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 40% p.a.

Ans: c) 25% p.a.

Also Read: Income Tax Chapterwise MCQs (2022 - 2023)

1. 700+ Income Tax MCQs 2022-23 [Free PDF], Income Tax Laws and Practice MCQs 

2. 50+ MCQ on Residential Status, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

3. 100+ MCQs on Income From Salary, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

4. 50 Income from House Property MCQ, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

5. 50+ Profits and Gains from Business and Profession (PGBP) MCQs, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

6. 50 MCQ on Capital Gains, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23 [Free PDF]

7. 30+ MCQ on Set off and Carry forward of Losses, Income Tax MCQs 2022 - 23, Master Chart [Free PDF]

8. 25+ Income Tax Deductions MCQs (80C to 80 U), Income Tax MCQs 2022 – 23 [Free PDF]

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17. Rate of depreciation on Books owned by assessee carrying on profession not being annual publications:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 60% p.a.

Ans: d) 60% p.a.

18. Rate of depreciation on Books owned by assessee carrying on profession being annual publications:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 100% p.a.

Ans: d) 100% p.a.

19. Rate of depreciation on Franchise, trademark, patents, license, copyright, know-how or other commercial or business rights of similar nature:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 40% p.a.

Ans: c) 25% p.a.

20. Rate of depreciation on Computers and computer software:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 40% p.a.

Ans: d) 40% p.a.

21. Rate of depreciation on Books owned by assessee carrying on business in running lending libraries:

a) 10% p.a.

b) 20% p.a.

c) 25% p.a.

d) 100% p.a.

Ans: d) 100% p.a.

22. In case of an assessee engaged in the business of manufacturing of tea, his agricultural income is:

a) 60% of total receipt of the business

b) 60% of income of the business

c) Nil

d) Total business income

Ans: c) Nil

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23. Ramesh Tea Ltd., acquired a motor car for Rs. 6,20,000 on 30.08.2018. The company is engaged in manufacture of tea in India. The amount of depreciation allowable on such motor car would be:

a) Rs. 93,000

b) Rs. 37,200

c) Rs. 46,500

d) Nil

Ans: a) Rs. 93,000

24. Contribution made to an approved research association is eligible for deduction up to:

a) 50%.

b) 80%.

c) 100%.

d) 125%.

Ans: d) 125%.

25. Unabsorbed capital expenditure on scientific research can be carried forward for:

a) 15 years.

b) 14 years.

c) 8 years.

d) 10.

Ans: c) 8 years.

26. Capital expenditure on scientific research which cannot be absorbed on account of insufficiency of profit in any accounting year can be carried forward for:

a) 16.

b) 8.

c) indefinite.

d) 12.

Ans: c) indefinite.

27. Contribution to approved research (not scientific) institution in case of a business man is:

a) 100% of such amount

b) 125% of such amount

c) 175% of such amount

d) None of above

Ans: a) 100% of such amount

28. Which of the following is not allowed as a deduction for computation of business Income?

a) Loss incurred due to theft in factory after working hours

b) Anticipated future losses

c) Loss caused by white ants

d) Loss due to accidental fire in stock-in-trade

Ans: b) Anticipated future losses

29. Preliminary expenses are incurred in every business. What are the expenses that qualify for deduction u/s.35D?

a) Expenses for drafting memorandum and articles of association

b) Payment of duty at the office of Registrar of Companies

c) Expenditure incurred in preparation of project report

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

30. Expenditure incurred by a company for the purpose of promoting family planning among its employees, being of a capital nature:

a) Is not allowed as a deduction

b) Allowed as deduction in 4 equal installments in 4 years

c) 1/5 of expenditure is allowed as deduction in the previous year

d) 4/5 of expenditure is allowed as deduction in 4 equal installments in 4 years after the previous year

Ans: c) 1/5 of expenditure is allowed as deduction in the previous year

31. Expenditure on promotion of family planning is an allowance as deduction u/s. 36(1)(ix) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 in case of:

a) Individual

b) Firm

c) HUF

d) Company

Ans: d) Company

32. Deduction u/s 35AD is available in respect of expenditure on specified business, one of them is:

a) Setting up and operating a cold chain facility

b) Setting up and operating a power plant

c) Setting up and operating an industrial unit

d) All of the above

Ans: a) Setting up and operating a cold chain facility

33. Block of asset is required to be increased by an amount which is actual cost of the asset being covered u/s 35AD that amount is:

a) Actual expenditure

b) Nil

c) 50% of actual expenditure

d) None of the above.

Ans: b) Nil

34. Loss from specified business covered u/s 35AD can be adjusted against the income of:

a) Any other business income

b) Cannot be adjusted

c) Any income other than salary

d) Income from other specified business

Ans: d) Income from other specified business

35. Bad debts allowed earlier and recovered latter on is:

a) Business income.

b) Non-business income.

c) Exempted income.

d) Income from other sources.

Ans: a) Business income.

36. Which one of the following is not an admissible expense?

a) Income tax.

b) Excise duty.

c) Bad debt.

d) Sales tax.

Ans: a) Income tax.

37. Under valuation of opening stock is:

a) Deducted from net profit.

b) Added to net profit.

c) Credited to P & L A/c.

d) None of these.

Ans: a) Deducted from net profit.

38. Over valuation of Closing stock is:

a) Deducted from net profit.

b) Added to net profit.

c) Credited to P & L A/c.

d) None of these.

Ans: a) Deducted from net profit.

39. Under valuation of closing stock is:

a) Deducted from net profit.

b) Added to net profit.

c) Credited to P & L A/c.

d) None of these.

Ans: b) Added to net profit.

40. Over valuation of opening stock is:

a) Deducted from net profit.

b) Added to net profit.

c) Credited to P & L A/c.

d) None of these.

Ans: b) Added to net profit.

41. Additional depreciation is allowed to an assessee:

a) Which is an industrial undertaking

b) Which is an industrial undertaking or an assessee who is engaged in the business of generation or generation and distribution of power

c) Which is engaged in any business

d) Which is an electricity undertaking

Ans: b) Which is an industrial undertaking or an assessee who is engaged in the business of generation or generation and distribution of power

42. Additional depreciation is allowed in case of:

a) All assets acquired by the specified assessee

b) Eligible plant and machinery acquired by the assessee

c) New eligible plant and machinery acquired by the specified assessee

d) New eligible plant and machinery and furniture acquired by the specified assessee

Ans: c) New eligible plant and machinery acquired by the specified assessee

43. If a depreciable asset is acquired and used for less than 180 days in a financial year, depreciation allowed on it is:

a) Normal Rate.

b) 50% of Normal Rate.

c) Nil.

d) None of these.

Ans: b) 50% of Normal Rate.

44. Under section 44AB the audit of accounts is compulsory if total sales exceed:

a) Rs: 40 lakhs.

b) Rs: 50 lakhs.

c) Rs: one crore.

d) Rs: five crores.

Ans: c) Rs: one crore.

45. Gifts from clients are:

a) Professional income.

b) Income from other sources.

c) Non-taxable item.

d) None of these.

Ans: a) Professional income.

46. Repairs incurred before installation of an assets is:

a) Capital expenditure.

b) Revenue expenditure.

c) Non-business expenditure.

d) None of these.

Ans: a) Capital expenditure.

47. Under section 44AB ‘specified date’ means:

a) 30th June.

b) 30th September.

c) 30th November.

d) 31st December.

Ans: b) 30th September.

48. Tax audit is not compulsory in which one of the following cases?

a) Any assessee who derive income from section 44B.

b) Any assessee who derive income from section 44BBA.

c) Where Assessee declares profit under section 44AD (1) and his total sales/turnover/gross receipts as the case may be does not exceeds Rs. 2crores.

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

49. In case of profession, tax audit is compulsory if gross fee received exceeds:

a) Rs. 50 Lakhs

b) Rs. 1 Crore

c) Rs. 5 Crores

d) Rs. 10 Crores

Ans: a) Rs. 50 Lakhs

50. In case of business, tax audit is compulsory if gross turnover received exceeds:

a) Rs. 50 Lakhs

b) Rs. 1 Crore

c) Rs. 5 Crores

d) Rs. 10 Crores

Ans: b) Rs. 1 Crore

51. Which of the following taxes are allowed as deduction while computing the business income?

a) Wealth Tax

b) Income Tax

c) Sales Tax

d) Securities Transaction Tax

Ans: c) Sales Tax

52. Where the payment of any expenditure claimed as deduction by an assessee carrying on business or profession exceeds Rs. 10,000; it should be paid by:

a) Crossed cheque or draft

b) Account payee cheque or draft

c) Payment made using debit or credit card

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

53. Last date of filling audit report under Sec. 44AB shall be:

a) 31st July of the relevant assessment year

b) 30th September of the relevant assessment year

c) 30th November of the relevant assessment year

d) 31st December of the relevant assessment year

Ans: b) 30th September of the relevant assessment year

54. Contribution made to an approved research association is eligible for deduction up to:

a) 50%.

b) 80%.

c) 100%.

d) 125%.

Ans: d) 125%.

55. Which of the following is eligible for 100% deduction?

a) Contribution to National Laboratory for Scientific research

b) Capital expenditure on in-house scientific research

c) Contribution to approved scientific research company

d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

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