[UKSSSC] Uttarakhand Assistant Accountant Solved Question Paper 2023 [English Medium]

UKSSSC Assistant Accountant Solved Question Paper 2023
Uttarakhand Subordinate Service Selection Commission

Max. Marks: 100

Time: 2 Hours

In this Post you will Get [UKSSSC] Uttarakhand Assistant Accountant Solved Question Paper 2016 with notes. We have Also Uploaded [UKSSSC] Uttarakhand Sahayak Lekhakar Solved Question Paper from 2016 till Date in Hindi. Complete Self study notes for [UKSSSC] Uttarakhand Assistant Accountant Exam is available now.

1. Even when a separate set of books is maintained to record all the transactions relating to a joint venture if every co-venturer maintains in his ledger an account then it will be called as:

(a) Coventurer's Suspense A/c

(b) Joint Venture Investment A/c

(c) Current A/c

(d) Capital A/c

Ans: (b) Joint Venture Investment A/c

2. In the books of Hire Purchaser, on seizure of the goods by the Hire vendor, the balance in the assets account is transferred to:

(a) Profit and Loss Account

(b) Hire Vendor's Account

(c) Goods Repossessed Account

(d) Trading Account

Ans: (b) Hire Vendor's Account

3. In case of instalment payment system, total interest receivable by the seller is credited to:

(a) Interest Suspense Account

(b) Interest Account

(c) Sales Account

(d) Purchaser's Account

Ans: (a) Interest Suspense Account

4. Determine Invoice Price when goods costing 1,80,000 sent at a profit of 20% on Invoice Price.

(a) ₹ 2,16,000

(b) ₹ 2,25,000

(c) ₹ 1,44,000

(d) ₹ 1,35,000

Ans: (b) 2,25,000 [Hint: 1,80,000*100/80]

5. The nature of the Consignee account is of a:

(a) Real Account

(b) Nominal Account

(c) Suspense Account

(d) Personal Account

Ans: (d) Personal Account

Also Read: UKSSSC Assistant Accountant Exam Solved Question Papers [English Medium]

👉UKSSSC Assistant Accountant Solved Question Paper 2016 

6. Which of the following is not a method for valuation of goodwill?

(a) Super Profit Method

(b) Capitalisation Method

(c) Net Asset Value Method

(d) Annuity Method

Ans: (c) Net Asset Value Method [It is a method for valuation of shares]

7. If a debenture of 1,000 was purchased by the company itself for 980 the difference of 20 will be:

(a) Profit on Redemption of Debentures

(b) Loss on Redemption of Debentures

(c) Goodwill

(d) Revenue Receipt

Ans: (a) Profit on Redemption of Debentures [it will transfer to Capital reserve]

8. S Ltd. has goods of 12,000 in stock supplied by its holding company at a profit of 20% on cost. The holding company interest is 80%. The amount of stock reserve is:

(a) ₹ 2,400

(b) ₹ 2,000

(c) ₹ 1,600

(d) ₹ 800

Ans: (b) 2,000

[Hint: This transaction is a downstream sale (Holding company selling to Subsidiary company). In accounting standards (like AS 21 and standard corporate accounting practices), when a holding company sells goods to its subsidiary, the entire unrealized profit of ₹2,000 must be eliminated by creating a stock reserve, regardless of the holding company's percentage of ownership (80%).]

9. Pre-incorporation profit is to be credited to:

(a) Profit and Loss Account

(b) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

(c) General Reserve Account

(d) Capital Reserve Account

Ans: (d) Capital Reserve Account

10. What is the formula to calculate the value of goodwill through Capitalization of Super Profit Method?

(a) (Average Profit/Normal Rate) *100

(b) (Super Profit/Average Profit) * 100

(c) (Annual Super Profit/Normal Rate) * 100

(d) (Annual Average Profit/Normal Rate) * 100

Ans: (c) (Annual Super Profit/Normal Rate) * 100

11. Under the scheme of reconstruction, the nature of Reconstruction Account is of:

(a) Artificial Personal Account

(b) Representative Personal Account

(c) Real Account

(d) Nominal Account

Ans: (d) Nominal Account

12. The main objective of Cost Accounting is:

(a) To Maximise Profit

(b) Determining the selling policy

(c) Ascertainment of Cost

(d) Valuation of Inventory

Ans: (c) Ascertainment of Cost

13. Abnormal wastage of material is charged to ________ in the case of Process Account.

(a) Profit & Loss Account

(b) General Profit & Loss Account

(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account

(d) Profit & Loss Adjustment Account

Ans: (b) General Profit & Loss Account

14. Which of the following method indicates the current economic values for material issued?

(a) FIFO Method

(b) LIFO Method

(c) Simple Average Method

(d) Weighted Average Method

Ans: (b) LIFO Method

15. A cost sheet includes:

(a) Only Direct Costs

(b) Only Indirect Costs

(c) Both Profit and Costs

(d) Only Prime Costs

Ans: (c) Both Profit and Costs

16. Which of the following items is included in Cost Accounting?

(a) Transfer to General Reserve

(b) Income Tax

(c) Rent Received

(d) Depreciation

Ans: (d) Depreciation

17. The variable cost per unit:

(a) Remains constant

(b) Fluctuates with volume of production

(c) Increases with increase of sales

(d) Decreases with decrease of sales

Ans: (a) Remains constant

18. What will be the value of Inventory, if current ratio = 2.5, Acid test ratio = 1.7 and current assets = 2,50,000?

(a) ₹ 1,00,000

(b) ₹ 6,00,000

(c) ₹ 80,000

(d) ₹ 6,000

Ans: (c) 80,000

19. Calculate labour yield variance from the given figures: Standard output = 750 units; Actual production = 600 units; Standard wages = 20 per hour; Standard time = 7 hours per unit.

(a) ₹ 21,000 unfavourable

(b) ₹ 21,000 favourable

(c) ₹ 22,000 unfavourable

(d) ₹ 22,000 favourable

Ans: (a) 21,000 unfavourable

20. Which of the following is not a technique of capital structure analysis?

(a) Trading on equity

(b) Capital Gearing

(c) Cost of Capital

(d) Capital Budgeting

Ans: (d) Capital Budgeting

21. If operating expenses are 1,00,000 and operating cycle in a year is 1.25, then working capital requirement will be:

(a) ₹ 1,25,000

(b) ₹ 80,000

(c) ₹ 1,00,000

(d) ₹ 45,000

Ans: (b) 80,000

22. Debt-equity Ratio is a:

(a) Liquidity Ratio

(b) Profitability Ratio

(c) Solvency Ratio

(d) Efficiency Ratio

Ans: (c) Solvency Ratio

23. Which of the following regarding working capital is true?

(a) NWC = CA + CL

(b) NWC = FA + FL

(c) NWC = FA + CL

(d) NWC = CA – CL

Ans: (d) NWC = CA – CL

24. Which of the following is not a major tool of Management Accounting?

(a) Marginal Costing

(b) Budgetary Control

(c) Depreciation Accounting

(d) Inflation Accounting

Ans: (c) Depreciation Accounting

25. Break Even Point can be calculated by the following formula:

(a) Fixed Cost / (Selling Price Per Unit - Fixed Cost Per Unit)

(b) Fixed Cost / Total Contribution

(c) (Fixed Cost + Variable Cost) / P/V Ratio

(d) Fixed Cost / P/V Ratio

Ans: (d)

26. Zero-based budgeting is the reverse of ________.

(a) Performance Budgeting

(b) Traditional Budgeting

(c) Cash Budgeting

(d) Sales Budgeting

Ans: (b) Traditional Budgeting

27. Calculate Operating Profit Ratio from the following information:

Net Profit = 2,02,000

Sales = 8,00,000

Non-Operating Income = 10,000

Non-Operating Expenses = 8,000

(a) 20%

(b) 25%

(c) 30%

(d) 33%

Ans: (b) 25%

28. A contract made under undue influence is:

(a) Valid

(b) Void

(c) Voidable

(d) Illegal

Ans: (c) Voidable

29. A void agreement is one which is:

(a) Valid but not enforceable.

(b) Enforceable at the option of both the parties.

(c) Enforceable at the option of one party.

(d) Not enforceable in a court of law.

Ans: (d) Not enforceable in a court of law.

30. The term “Goods” under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 does not include:

(a) Harvested Crops

(b) Stock and Shares

(c) Grass

(d) Actionable Claims

Ans: (d) Actionable Claims

31. Rebate from Tax Liability U/S 87-A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is available to:

(a) Only Individual

(b) Both HUF and Individual

(c) HUF/AOP/BOI

(d) Firm

Ans: (a) Only Individual (Resident)

[Hint: New Tax Regime: Income up to ₹12 lakh allows a rebate of up to ₹60,000. Old Tax Regime: Income up to ₹5 lakh allows a rebate of up to ₹12,500.

32. A proposal when accepted it becomes a:

(a) Contract

(b) Consideration

(c) Agreement

(d) Promise

Ans: (d) Promise

33. For a contract, agreement is:

(a) Necessary

(b) Unnecessary

(c) Compulsory

(d) None of these

Ans: (c) Compulsory

34. When an acceptance can be revoked?

(a) Any time

(b) Before the communication of acceptance

(c) Never

(d) After the communication of acceptance

Ans: (b) Before the communication of acceptance

35. The Internal Audit is conducted by:

(a) Employers of the organisation

(b) Separate Salaried Staff

(c) Appointment on Contract basis

(d) Cost Auditors

Ans: (b) Separate Salaried Staff

36. Which of the following GST is imposed under GST Act, 2017 on Interstate supply of goods?

(a) IGST

(b) CGST

(c) SGST

(d) UGST

Ans: (a) IGST

[Hint: Interstate – IGST, Intrastate means within same state – SGST/UTGST]

37. A contract with minor is:

(a) Valid

(b) Void

(c) Voidable

(d) Illegal

Ans: (b) Void [Hint: a minor's agreement is completely void from the very beginning (void ab initio).]

38. Every year the residential status of an assessee ________.

(a) May change

(b) Will certainly change

(c) Will not change

(d) None of these

Ans: (a) May change

39. Which one of the following audit is not mandatory?

(a) Audit of Company

(b) Audit of Sole Trader

(c) Audit of Trusts

(d) Audit of Banks

Ans: (b) Audit of Sole Trader

40. The Demand Curve for the firm’s product in a perfectly competitive market is:

(a) Inelastic

(b) Unitary elastic

(c) Perfectly elastic

(d) Less than unitary elastic

Ans: (c) Perfectly elastic

41. Banks create credit by:

(a) Advancing loans

(b) Purchasing securities

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither of (a) and (b)

Ans: (c) Both (a) and (b)

42. Which of the followings is not a name of Law of Diminishing Returns?

(a) Law of Variable proportions

(b) Law of Returns

(c) Law of Proportionality

(d) Law of Constant returns

Ans: (d) Law of Constant returns

43. Law of diminishing returns applies to ________.

(a) Only in Agriculture

(b) Only in Industry

(c) All sectors of production

(d) None of the above

Ans: (c) All sectors of production

44. Market price of perishable goods is influenced by:

(a) Demand only

(b) Supply only

(c) Demand and supply

(d) None of the above

Ans: (a) Demand only

45. A monopolist can determine:

(a) Price and output both

(b) Neither price nor output

(c) Either price or output

(d) None of the above

Ans: (c) Either price or output

46. “Business has one and only one social responsibility, to make profits.” Who said this?

(a) Adam Smith

(b) Mallen Baker

(c) Milton Friedman

(d) Mark Pastin

Ans: (c) Milton Friedman

47. Classical Organization Theory treats an organisation as a/an:

(a) Closed system

(b) Open system

(c) Super system

(d) Technical system

Ans: (a) Closed system

48. A ________ is a complex cluster of related activities with a definite objective and a definite completion time period.

(a) Plan

(b) Programme

(c) Project

(d) Strategy

Ans: (c) Project

49. The German System of Corporate Governance is based on:

(a) Anglo Saxon System

(b) Two-tier Management Structure

(c) One-tier Management Structure

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans: (b) Two-tier Management Structure

[Hint: The German Corporate Governance model (often called the Continental or Germanic model) is famous for its Two-tier Board System. It divides corporate governance into two separate bodies:

* Vorstand (Management Board): Responsible for the day-to-day running of the business.

* Aufsichtsrat (Supervisory Board): Appoints, monitors, and advises the management board, often containing employee representatives (co-determination).

50. Business ethics is important for ________.

(a) Top Management

(b) Middle Management

(c) Neither for (a) nor for (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b)

51. “A plan is a trap to capture the future.” The statement was given by:

(a) Allen

(b) Newman

(c) Hurley

(d) Terry

Ans: (a) Allen

52. The sum of the deviations from Actual Mean is:

(a) Zero

(b) Maximum

(c) Least

(d) None of these

Ans: (a) Zero

53. The rank correlation coefficient varies between:

(a) 0 to + 1

(b) – 1 to 0

(c) + 1 to + 2

(d) + 1 to – 1

Ans: (d) + 1 to – 1

54. A trend of the form y = a + bx + cx² is what type of trend?

(a) Linear

(b) Second Degree Parabola

(c) Exponential

(d) Circular

Ans: (b) Second Degree Parabola

55. A simple random sample may be selected by:

(a) Lottery method

(b) Random Numbers

(c) Stratification

(d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (d) (a) and (b) both

56. Which of the following measures of dispersion is most affected by the extreme values of a series?

(a) Mean Deviation

(b) Standard Deviation

(c) Range

(d) Quartile Deviation

Ans: (c) Range

57. If the mean of certain observations is 10 and a constant quantity 14 is added to each observation, then the modified value of mean will be:

(a) 10

(b) 14

(c) 24

(d) 04

Ans: (c) 24

58. “Money is what money does.” This definition was given by:

(a) Marshall

(b) Crowther

(c) Kent

(d) Hartley Withers

Ans: (d) Hartley Withers

59. In which schedule of Reserve Bank, the name of Scheduled Banks is included?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

Ans: (b) Second

60. Money Market deals in:

(a) Short term fund

(b) Long term fund

(c) Medium term fund

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans: (a) Short term fund

61. Keynes has called deflation as inexpedient because it:

(a) Is uncontrolled

(b) Is not a problem for Government

(c) Decreases foreign trade

(d) Increases unemployment

Ans: (d) Increases unemployment

62. Who among the following gave the definition of Money “Anything which is declared money by state becomes money.”?

(a) Knapp

(b) Ely

(c) Keynes

(d) Seligman

Ans: (a) Knapp

63. The participant of the secondary market is (are):

(a) Regulatory Bodies

(b) Market Intermediaries

(c) Neither (a) nor (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b)

64. The emotional and relational problems of the sender and the receiver are classified under:

(a) Language barriers

(b) Media barriers

(c) Socio-psychological barriers

(d) Physical barriers

Ans: (c) Socio-psychological barriers

65. The main objective of communication is:

(a) Information and Persuasion

(b) Skill and Personality Development

(c) Control and Management

(d) It’s a need

Ans: (a) Information and Persuasion

66. Steps of any mock interview generally are:

(a) Nine

(b) Four

(c) Six

(d) Five

Ans: (d) Five

67. The main stages of an interview are:

(a) Six

(b) Five

(c) Three

(d) Two

Ans: (c) Three

68. Which among the following is not a phase of effective presentation of communication?

(a) Planning

(b) Structuring

(c) Delivering the lecture

(d) Gossiping

Ans: (d) Gossiping

69. ________ questions are suggestive in nature and encourage the interviewee to agree with the interviewer.

(a) Direct

(b) Loaded

(c) Double Barrel

(d) Closed

Ans: (b) Loaded

70. Patents Account is an example of ________.

(a) Nominal Account

(b) Tangible Real Account

(c) Intangible Real Account

(d) Personal Account

Ans: (c) Intangible Real Account

71. Accounting Principles are generally based on:

(a) Practicability

(b) Subjectivity

(c) Convenience in recording

(d) Conservatism

Ans: (a) Practicability

72. Which of the following is not a method of preparation of a Trial Balance?

(a) Total Method

(b) Net Value Method

(c) Balance Method

(d) Total and Balance Method

Ans: (b) Net Value Method

73. Expenditure incurred on erection of Machinery is:

(a) Capital Loss

(b) Revenue Expenditure

(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

(d) Capital Expenditure

Ans: (d) Capital Expenditure

74. As per dual aspect concept:

(a) Capital + Liabilities = Assets

(b) Liability + Expenses = Assets

(c) Purchases – Expenses = Assets

(d) Assets + Liabilities = Capital

Ans: (a) Capital + Liabilities = Assets

75. If the written down value of an asset according to the old method of depreciation is 50,000 and the value required according to new method of depreciation is 55,000, which account has to be credited to bring the actual written down value appearing in accounting record to its required level?

(a) Asset

(b) Depreciation

(c) Profit and Loss

(d) Capital

Ans: (c) Profit and Loss

76. Profit and Loss on revaluation at the time of retirement must be shared by ________.

(a) Remaining Partners

(b) All Partners

(c) Retired Partner

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b) All Partners

77. A profit making business unit having a separate legal entity and in which ownership is held in the form of share capital is known as ________.

(a) Sole proprietorship

(b) Trust

(c) Partnership firm

(d) Company

Ans: (d) Company

78. While preparing the financial statements of a company the amount of accumulated depreciation is recorded in ________.

(a) Balance Sheet

(b) Statement of Income

(c) Statement of Owner’s equity

(d) Trading Account

Ans: (a) Balance Sheet

79. As per Indian Accounting Standards – 26 Goodwill is a/an:

(a) Fictitious Asset

(b) Intangible Asset

(c) Floating Asset

(d) Wasting Asset

Ans: (b) Intangible Asset

80. In case of Foreign Branch the current assets and liabilities should be converted at:

(a) Exchange Rate prevailing on the last date of the year.

(b) Average Exchange Rate

(c) Exchange Rate prevailing on the beginning date of the year

(d) Specific Exchange Rate of SDR

Ans: (a) Exchange Rate prevailing on the last date of the year.

खण्ड – ख (सामान्य हिन्दी)

81. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से शुद्ध शब्द का चयन कीजिए ।

(a) द्रष्टा

(b) द्रश्टा

(c) दृष्टा

(d) दृश्टा

Ans: (a) द्रष्टा

82. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध शब्द है –

(a) पूर्ती

(b) पूरती

(c) पूर्ति

(d) पुर्ति

Ans: (c) पूर्ति

83. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है –

(a) मैं लेटना माँगता हूँ ।

(b) मुझे स्मरण दिला देना ।

(c) कमीज डाल लो ।

(d) सभा में सन्नाटा छा गया ।

Ans: (d) सभा में सन्नाटा छा गया ।

84. रंगमंच पर परदे के पीछे के स्थान के लिए एक शब्द होता है –

(a) रंगशीर्ष

(b) रंगपीठ

(c) मत्तवारिका

(d) नेपथ्य

Ans: (d) नेपथ्य

85. ‘सारी पृथ्वी से संबंध रखने वाला’ शब्दश के लिए एक शब्द है –

(a) सार्वकालिक

(b) सार्वभौमिक

(c) सार्वजनिक

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Ans: (b) सार्वभौमिक

86. ‘वर्ष में एक बार होने वाला’ के लिए एक शब्द है –

(a) त्रयवार्षिक

(b) द्विवार्षिक

(c) वार्षिक

(d) अर्द्धवार्षिक

Ans: (c) वार्षिक

87. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से ‘तत्सम’ शब्द चुनिए –

(a) आम्र

(b) आग

(c) चरखा

(d) डिबिया

Ans: (a) आम्र

88. तद्भव शब्द ‘बच्चा’ का तत्सम रूप होगा –

(a) बालक

(b) बच्छ

(c) वत्स

(d) पाल्य

Ans: (c) वत्स

89. ‘कूर्दन’ तत्सम शब्द का तद्भव रूप होगा –

(a) कूड़ा

(b) कूची

(c) कूदना

(d) कीड़ा

Ans: (c) कूदना

90. निम्नलिखित में से तद्भव शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए ।

(a) पर्यंक

(b) हरिद्रा

(c) चोंच

(d) क्षीर

Ans: (c) चोंच

91. निम्नलिखित में गुणवाचक विशेषण कौन सा है?

(a) भारी गट्ठर

(b) खट्टा नींबू

(c) लम्बी सड़क

(d) बहुत-सी पुस्तकें

Ans: (b) खट्टा नींबू

92. “काला घोड़ा दौड़ रहा है ।” वाक्य में विशेष्य है –

(a) काला

(b) घोड़ा

(c) दौड़

(d) रहा है ।

Ans: (b) घोड़ा

93. ‘लाल’ विशेषण से बना भाववाचक संज्ञा शब्द नहीं है –

(a) ललाई

(b) लालित्य

(c) लालिमा

(d) लाली

Ans: (b) लालित्य

94. ‘अर्णव’ शब्द निम्नलिखित में से किसका पर्यायवाची है?

(a) समुद्र

(b) हाथी

(c) आकाश

(d) ईश्वर

Ans: (a) समुद्र

95. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शब्द ‘अज्ञ’ शब्द का पर्याय नहीं है?

(a) अनभिज्ञ

(b) अज्ञानी

(c) विज्ञ

(d) मूर्ख

Ans: (c) विज्ञ

96. निम्नलिखित में से ‘सिंह’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है –

(a) केसरी

(b) विहग

(c) गजपति

(d) खर

Ans: (a) केसरी

97. ‘हरि’ शब्द किसका पर्यायवाची नहीं है?

(a) विष्णु

(b) भालू

(c) सिंह

(d) वानर

Ans: (b) भालू

98. निम्नलिखित में से ‘निरामिष’ का विलोम शब्द है –

(a) म्लेच्छ

(b) भक्ष्याभक्षी

(c) दुर्भोजी

(d) सामिष

Ans: (d) सामिष

99. ‘विस्तीर्ण’ निम्न में से किस शब्द का विलोम है?

(a) प्रकीर्ण

(b) संकीर्ण

(c) प्रवीण

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Ans: (b) संकीर्ण

100. ‘अनिवार्य’ शब्द का उचित विपरीतार्थक है –

(a) अनावश्यक

(b) वैकल्पिक

(c) अपरिहार्य

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Ans: (b) वैकल्पिक

For More Details, Visit Official website of UKSSSC Sahayak Lekhakar (Assistant Accountant) Official Website

********************